Why can the High court not declare a Constitutional Law void if it violates the charter but can declare a General Law void if it violates the charter?
Why is it that the provisions for election would be put into a general law and not into a constitutional law?
Above all else, I hope to be a decent person. Has Been
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CoA: August 2016-January 2017
Minister of Foreign Affairs: October 2019-June 2020, October 2020- February 2021
(This post was last modified: 05-02-2016, 06:15 PM by Omega.)